Surely "Thou hast" denotes past tense, and "Hast thou" is enquiring if the action has occurred ?
The second was used in the interrogative to say much the same as the first, only more subtly. "You have nicked my biscuit" as opposed to "Have you nicked my biscuit?"
I should add that there are several past tenses, and "Thou hast" and "Hast thou" are both examples of the same Perfect tense.
Searched the whole of my Shakespeare and cannot find any reference to people nicking biscuits, either in the past, present or the future. However if they wish to nick biscuits, it is their prerogative to do so! Much Ado About Nothing in my book.
"I see a wall, now will I to the chink, to spy and hear my Thisby's face."
Whoever writes such nonsense doesn't deserve to be read.
P.s. I do know that this is Bottom's line from the play within a play of MSND! What an ass!